The Word in John 1:1 is not Jesus, but rather, God's Word (His thoughts, plan, message). This word was from the beginning, because, right from the beginning, God had this plan, this message for us. The message and plan are that He loves us, and has a way for us to be reconciled back to Him. In John 1:14, the Word becomes flesh...this is the part where the plan of God, promised from the begining, is revealed in human flesh, in the person of Jesus Christ. Jesus, the man of flesh, who would reveal to us God's grace and plan, there from the beginning, in his life and death. We can be reconciled back to God because of Jesus, God's plan revealed in flesh.
Make sense? The common mistake is in assuming because in verse 1 the Word is with God and is God, and then in verse 14 the Word is made flesh, obviously reffering to Jesus, that that means we can throw out all the verses in between and make it mean the Word is God, the Word is Jesus therfore Jesus is God...which is faulty reasoning and doesn't make sense.
this is my question, why did you say that in john 1:1 is not Jesus?, how could you say?. by the way this is my point, I believe that The man Christ Jesus is the God's Only Begotten Son, and then do you remember that john 1:1 says, in the beginning was the word and the word was with God and the Word was God,..first of all, in the beginning was the Word, and the Word which is says in john 1:1 is one of Jesus Title, concerning or according in his manifestation.. The Bible says that Jesus Christ is the living Word, Therefore in john 1:1 speaks to the Father which is the God the father and to the Son, Jesus Christ...and here, if the bible says that the word was God,..then if you dig the dictionary or anything else, Cause i believe that God is a person, then how could you say that the word was person? if the bible literally speaking in john 1:1, the word was a person? then if the word was not a person, then who are worthy to take this position?, the worthy person can take this position is God also, there is no man can take this position, then obviously you can oversee who is the worthy person to take this position...if i guess the worthy man or person can take this is, Jesus Christ only...cause Jesus Christ is not only a man, but a God-man....therefore john 1:1 is obviously speaking on God the son and God the father which is called God, and the Word was (Jesus Christ)....there is anything else to argue this? Lastly speaking the (word) in john 1:1 does not says that the literal Word, but that's the other title of Jesus Christ is (Word)....Thank you & God Bless to all that heareth this...