Apologies if this has already been answered on the forum!
"Fathers shall not be put to death for their sons, nor shall sons be put to death for their fathers; everyone shall be put to death for his own sin."
I'm wondering if citing Deut 24:16 is valid when discussing why God had the Israelites wipe out the wicked nations (men, women and children). When I try and explain things, I usually find myself suggesting God knew full well the children of the wicked nations would have grown up to be as wicked as their parents so it wasn't a case of punishing the innocent, it was an instance of punishing the wicked (before they grew up to become wicked).
Or, perhaps, is Deut 14:16 applicable only to the Israelites?
I struggle a bit with how to logically and rationally justify things.
Thanks!