This may be a stupid question, but do brethren routinely make use of the LXX for finding Bible echoes between the OT and NT? i.e. comparing the Greek of the LXX with the Greek of the NT.
I don't know, do they? They claim to be able to do it by using the KJV, which is comparing a translation from Hebrew into four hundred year old English with a translation of Greek into four hundred year old English. It seems to me that the LXX and the GNT are not likely to be any worse.
Obviously if the LXX was good enough for the NT writers to quote from, it can't be dismissed as "just a translation into Greek". Or can it?
No it can't. It was the Bible of the NT era.
I'm not a huge fan of making connections between passages based simply on the same word occurring in both, even when it's the same language.
Nor am I. I'm sure Richie would agree. Still, one wants to avoid basic errors like identifying an OT quotation in the NT, making a subtle point based on an English-ified interpretation of the OT Hebrew, despite the NT quoting an LXX version which doesn't support it.